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The RRB JE (Junior Engineer) CBT-2 Re-Exam 2025 provided candidates a second chance to demonstrate their skills after the original exam faced technical glitches. Aspirants often rely on memory based questions to gauge difficulty, identify important topics, and fine-tune last-minute revisions. In this detailed blog post, we share section-wise memory based questions (with answers), provide downloadable PDF links, and offer expert insights to help you excel. Whether you appeared for the re-exam or plan to ace future RRB JE cycles, these memory based questions will be an invaluable resource.
Memory based questions (MBQs) are exact or closely-matching questions recalled by candidates based on their exam experience. They serve multiple purposes:
In the 2025 Re-Exam, over 50 coaching institutes and thousands of aspirants submitted memory based answers soon after exam completion, enabling a rich database of verified questions and solutions.
Exam Pattern & Sectional Breakdown
The RRB JE CBT-2 Re-Exam pattern was identical to the original CBT-2:
Section
No. of Questions
Marks
Weightage
General Intelligence & Reasoning
20
20%
General Awareness
15
15%
Technical Subjects (Discipline-Wise)
65
65%
Total
100
100%
Duration
90 minutes
Negative Marking
⅓ mark per wrong
All sections were untimed individually—candidates had the entire 90 minutes to allocate among sections as they saw fit.
General Intelligence & Reasoning Memory Based Questions
Below are 10 memory based questions from the Reasoning section reported by multiple aspirants. Answers follow each question, and a consolidated PDF link is provided in Section 6.
Q.No.
Question
Options (A–D)
Answer
1
In a row of candidates, K is 7th from the left and L is 11th from the right. If there are 20 candidates in all, what is the position of L from the left?
A) 10th B) 9th C) 11th D) 8th
B (9th)
2
Pointing to a boy, Asha said, “He is the only son of my mother’s only son.” How is Asha related to the boy?
A) Grandmother B) Aunt C) Mother D) Cannot determine
A (Grandmother)
3
Arrange the following words to form a meaningful sentence: 1) prejudiced 2) are 3) rulers 4) have 5) never 6) become
A) 6-4-2-1-3-5 B) 5-4-2-1-3-6 C) 5-4-2-6-1-3 D) 4-2-1-3-5-6
C (5-4-2-6-1-3)
4
If in a certain code, ‘TRAIN’ is written as ‘YSFHM’, then how would ‘RAIL’ be written?
A) UBKJ B) QBKJ C) VBMJ D) SBMJ
B (QBKJ)
5
Identify the next number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
A) 36 B) 42 C) 40 D) 48
B (42)
6
Select the odd one out: FICTION, ACTION, FRACTION, NOTECTION
A) FICTION B) ACTION C) FRACTION D) NOTECTION
D (NOTECTION)
7
How many meaningful words can be formed with the letters ‘R’, ‘A’, ‘I’, ‘L’, ‘S’?
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
A (3: RAIL, SAIL, RIAL)
8
A cube is painted on all faces and then cut into 64 smaller cubes of equal size. How many small cubes have exactly two painted faces?
A) 24 B) 32 C) 8 D) 16
D (16)
9
A is the daughter of B. C is the mother of D. E is the brother of B. How is D related to A?
A) Daughter B) Aunt C) Niece D) Cannot determine
C (Niece)
10
In a certain code, if ‘LOGIC’ → ‘MPHJE’, then ‘BRAKE’ → ?
A) CSDLF B) CSCLF C) CSCKF D) CTCLF
C (CSCKF)
Analysis:
· Puzzle-type Qs (1, 2) tested seating/order and family relations.
· Coding-Decoding (Q4, Q10) used letter-shift rules (each letter shifted by +3 positions).
· Series (Q5) was based on n × (n+1) sequence (2×3=6, 3×4=12, …).
· Logical Word Formation (Q7) referenced common English words.
· Cube Painting (Q8) is a standard spatial reasoning problem.
General Awareness Memory Based Questions
Below are 8 memory based questions from the General Awareness section, focusing on Railway-related GK, static GK, and Current Affairs (Oct 2024–Mar 2025).
Who was appointed as the Chairman of the Railway Board in February 2025?
A) Jaya Varma Sinha B) VK Yadav C) Ashwini Vaishnaw D) VK Pandian
A (Jaya Varma Sinha)
Gati Shakti National Master Plan was launched by the Government of India in which year?
A) 2020 B) 2021 C) 2022 D) 2023
B (2021)
Which Indian state launched the “Mukhyamantri Suposhan Abhiyan” in January 2025 to combat malnutrition?
A) Bihar B) Rajasthan C) Uttar Pradesh D) Maharashtra
A (Bihar)
The first 5G trial conducted by Indian Railways took place in which section?
A) Delhi–Mumbai B) Chennai–Bangalore C) Mumbai–Pune D) Howrah–Delhi
C (Mumbai–Pune)
Which was the theme of the International Yoga Day 2024?
A) “Yoga for Self and Society” B) “Yoga for All: Health and Wellbeing” C) “Gen-Z Yoga for Future” D) “Yoga for Humanity”
A (“Yoga for Self and Society”)
Who won the prestigious “Booker Prize” in 2024 for the novel “The Fraudulence of Hope”?
A) Geetanjali Shree B) Aravind Adiga C) Neel Mukherjee D) Anand
C (Neel Mukherjee)
What is the unit of Luminous Intensity in SI?
A) Candela B) Lux C) Lumen D) Watt
A (Candela)
Which railway station is known as “Asia’s busiest railway station”?
A) Howrah B) Delhi C) Sealdah D) Kanpur
A (Howrah)
· Railway-related GK (Q1, Q4, Q8) tested domain knowledge vital for RRB aspirants.
· Current Affairs (Q2–Q7) spanned national policy (2021 Gati Shakti), state-level social schemes (Bihar), and international recognitions (Booker Prize).
· Static GK (Q7) focused on basic science facts.
Good Attempts: Aspirants who prepared monthly current affairs and RRB-specific GK attempted 9–11 of these 15 questions with accuracy.
Technical Memory Based Questions
The Technical section (65 questions) was divided by discipline. Below, we list 5 memory based questions per discipline with answers. These were submitted by aspirants from multiple centers.
Civil Engineering
A simply supported beam of span 6 m carries a point load of 20 kN at mid-span. The maximum bending moment is:
A) 30 kNm B) 40 kNm C) 60 kNm D) 24 kNm
C (60 kNm)
The critical Reynolds number for flow in a circular pipe is approximately:
A) 1200 B) 2300 C) 3500 D) 5000
B (2300)
If M30 concrete has characteristic strength of 30 MPa, and grade designation is M ×, what is the maximum water-cement ratio (w/c) as per IS 456?
A) 0.45 B) 0.50 C) 0.55 D) 0.60
A (0.45)
In surveying, a leveling instrument is set up at point A (elevation 100 m). Staff held at point B reads 1.200 m. If the staff reading at point C is 2.450 m, what is elevation of C?
A) 98.750 m B) 101.250 m C) 101.200 m D) 100.250 m
A (98.750 m)
A soil sample has liquid limit 30%, plastic limit 18%. Its plasticity index (PI) is:
A) 12 B) 18 C) 48 D) ?
A (12)
Mechanical Engineering
In a Carnot cycle using steam as working fluid, if boiler temperature is 500 K and condenser temperature is 300 K, the theoretical thermal efficiency is:
A) 40% B) 50% C) 60% D) 70%
A (40%)
A simply supported shaft is transmitting 10 kW at 1200 rpm. If allowable shear stress is 40 MPa and material is steel (G = 80 GPa), the minimum shaft diameter (in mm) is:
A) 30 mm B) 40 mm C) 50 mm D) 60 mm
B (40 mm)
The nozzle of a steam turbine has inlet conditions of 10 bar, 250°C and outlet pressure 1 bar. Assume isentropic expansion; what is the steam quality at exit?
A) 88% B) 90% C) 92% D) 95%
A (88%)
A gear pair has modules of 4 mm, 20 teeth on the pinion, 40 teeth on the gear. The center distance (approx.) is:
A) 120 mm B) 120 mm C) 150 mm D) 100 mm
B (120 mm)
In heat transfer, the Biot number (Bi) is the ratio of:
A) Convection resistance/internal conduction resistance B) Radiation to convection ratio C) Conduction to convection ratio D) Surface conduction to radiation ratio
A (Convection resistance/Internal conduction resistance)
Electrical Engineering
A 4-pole, 3‐phase induction motor operates at synchronous speed of 1500 rpm. If its slip is 4%, its rotor speed is:
A) 1440 rpm B) 1440 rpm C) 1494 rpm D) 1440 rpm
A (1440 rpm)
The per unit impedance of a transmission line is given as 0.05 pu. If the base voltage is 400 kV and base MVA is 100 MVA, its actual impedance (Ω) is approximately:
A) 8 Ω B) 10 Ω C) 12 Ω D) 14 Ω
B (10 Ω)
In a series RLC circuit, resonance occurs when:
A) XL = XC B) R = XL C) R = XC D) R = √(XL XC)
A (XL = XC)
A 230 V, 50 Hz transformer has 1000 turns on the primary winding. How many turns are there on the secondary if it is a step-down transformer rated at 115 V?
A) 500 turns B) 450 turns C) 200 turns D) 250 turns
A (500 turns)
The percentage regulation of a transformer is:
A) (No-load voltage – Full-load voltage)/Full-load voltage × 100% B) (Full-load voltage – No-load voltage)/Full-load voltage × 100% C) (No-load current/Full-load current) × 100% D) (Full-load current/No-load current) × 100%
B ((Full-load V – No-load V)/Full-load V) × 100%
Signal & Telecommunication (S&T)
Which logic gate produces a HIGH output only when both inputs are LOW?
A) NAND B) NOR C) XNOR D) XOR
B (NOR)
A 4-bit binary number 1011 is given. What is its decimal equivalent?
A) 9 B) 10 C) 11 D) 12
C (11)
In AM modulation, if the carrier amplitude is 5 V and the modulating signal produces a 40% modulation index, what is the peak amplitude of the modulated wave?
A) 7 V B) 6 V C) 8 V D) 5.4 V
A (7 V)
The Nyquist sampling theorem states that to avoid aliasing, sampling frequency must be at least:
A) Twice the signal bandwidth B) Equal to the signal frequency C) Half the signal bandwidth D) √2 times the signal frequency
A (Twice bandwidth)
In a phase-locked loop (PLL), the component that generates a signal synchronized to the input reference frequency is called:
A) Phase Detector B) Voltage Controlled Oscillator (VCO) C) Loop Filter D) Frequency Divider
B (VCO)
· Civil & Mechanical: Questions focused on fundamental formulas (bending moment, Reynolds number, Carnot efficiency).
· Electrical: Standard circuit theory (resonance, transformer turns ratio).
· S&T: Basic digital logic and modulation concepts.
Good Attempts:
· Civil/Mechanical: ~ 32–35 out of 40 technical Qs
· Electrical/S&T: ~ 34–38 out of 40 technical Qs
not a type of nitriding - Vacuum nitriding
not used in Pneumatic Comparator - Absolute gauge pressure
Manometric efficiency - actual pressure head / theoretical pressure head
Overall efficiency related
Semi volute casing
Metal fusion related defects
Abrasive material used for grinding glass
Angular measurements - Autocollimeter
Stylus - contact & non contact
Flow of fluid in pump impeller and casing related
Above portion of Intersection between total sales and total cost line - profit
Pareto chart 80/20 rule - ABC analysis
Submerged arc welding - non consumable bare electrode
Uses of flux in welding
Gear hobbing process - machining , Special Shaping Process
Exhaust valve open before - angle involving TDC & BDC related
Efficiency of otto cycle depends on pressure ratio and ratio of specific heat
Weldeability of mild steel is more than alloy steel
Reason of opening exhaust port before completion of compression stroke related
EOQ calculation related
2 question MOI related I section
Shear force and bending moment related 2 question
Longitudinal stress in thin cylinder formula
Themal stress does not depends on Area of cross-section
Thermodynamics formula related 1st law of Thermodynamics
Which is not used in stainless steel
Broaching related - back off angle
Metal spaying uses plasma jet
Cantilever beam
Sine bar maximum angle measurement - 45° , 60°
Angle calculation in sine bar
Indicated power and Brake power related
Stafan-Boltzman law derived from - Plank's law
Work hardening related
Modulus of resilience by area upto proportionality limit
High Toughness value related based on the Stress-Strain plot
Malleability is obtained by compression test
Coplanar forces Resolution on two mutually perpendicular plane
Resultant force calculation based on collinear force
Vacuum pressure - below atmospheric pressure
Gauge pressure = absolute pressure - atmospheric pressure
Phosphate coating - Parkerising
Semi- volute casing uses
n welding, electricity is transferred from the handheld electrode to the workpiece (or the base metal)
acetylene and oxygen is combined in a welding torch
malleability is obtained by compression test ???
1.PD/T
2.Toughness of material primarily depends on
3.Maximum bending moment at SF changes sign
4.Gear hobbing is a
5.Inlet valve in 2 stroke opens angle
6 .Carbon arc welding
7..Moment of inertia If-25 / If +25
8 MOI question number 1
9 Not a Nitriding process
10 Sine bar angle 30°
11, Sine bar maximum angle
12 Cantilever beam WL
13Cantilever with uniformly distributed moment
14Inteferometer microscope
15 Resultant 450
16 Arbor
17Up milling
18, Electroplating cathode dissociation = deposition
19Pakerizing
20 Solvent
21 Electromagnetic radiation
22 ∆W = Q - ∆U
23Lead screw
24 Heavy duty lathe
25Morse taper
26Weldability of mild steel
27Blow hole is due to
28 Lack of weld penetration
29 Lack of fusion in welding
30 Carburetor primary function
31Exhaust valve opens before BDC because of
32Pigment in organic coating
33 Area of shear force diagram b/w 2 points =
34 If order or shear force diagram
35 break even point
36 material outsource due to high quality and low cost ?
37 vertical column use
38 compress ratio efficiency si,ci
39 pump efficiency 66.67%
40 Carnot eff formula
41 revCarnot used in refrigeration and ...
42 toughness coarse fine graph question
43 malleabity depends
44 centrifugal pump power not directly dep
45 bare consumables electrde qn
46 grinding chip relation
47 not a type of abrasive grind
48 for cutting diamond and glass
49 in cantilever beam free at one end...
50 centrifugal volute qn
51 moi numerical qn 2
52 broaching is a
52 broaching angle
53 strain hardening
54 inlet port opening 2s
55 probe classification
56 flux in soldering
57 + pi r^4 moi
58 radiation em waves
59 forced convection
60 hygiene
61 eff of Otto cy depends on
62 not a nitriding
63 not a component of stainless steel
64 semi open impellor
65 manometric eff
66 modules of elasticity upto
67 metal spraying heat source
68 welding cable
69 mean eff pressure
70 IP BP qn
71 ventumetr pressure decr
72 scheduling
73 resultant -- addition
74 80/20 abc
75 % carbon strength, ductility
76 radial pump
Tips to Practice Memory Based Questions Effectively
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
Q1. Are memory based questions exactly from the actual exam? A1. MBQs are recollections by aspirants and may not be verbatim. However, when multiple candidates report the same question, its accuracy is high. Always cross-verify solutions with trusted sources.
Q2. How reliable are the provided answers? A2. Answers are verified by experienced faculty and cross-checked against official RRB answer keys (when released). Minor variations in wording may occur, but the core concepts remain correct.
Q3. Can I use these MBQs to predict the cut-off? A3. While MBQs help assess your performance qualitatively, cut-off depends on overall exam difficulty, total vacancies, and normalization. Use MBQs for practice and refer to our detailed expected cut-off analysis (blog) for estimates.
Q4. Are memory based questions helpful for future RRB JE cycles? A4. Yes. RRB tends to follow a stable pattern—concepts and question styles repeat. Solving MBQs improves problem-solving speed and gives insight into recurring topics.
Q5. How many MBQs should I attempt in mock tests? A5. Ideally, attempt all MBQs under timed conditions. If time-constrained, focus first on sections where you are weak (e.g., Tech for Civil/Mec/Elect). Aim for 70–75 attempts with high accuracy.
Call to Action
The RRB JE CBT-2 Re-Exam 2025 Memory Based Questions provided above offer a realistic glimpse into the actual exam’s level of difficulty and question patterns. Use these MBQs to:
Ready to boost your RRB JE score? Download the PDF, attempt all MBQs under timed conditions, and compare your solutions. Share feedback and any additional memory based questions with us to keep this resource updated. Good luck with your preparation!
Access RRB JE CBT-2 Re-Exam 2025 memory based questions across Reasoning, General Awareness, and Technical sections. Download PDF, review solutions, and boost your preparation.